>In what context can genocide or owning another human being as property not be evil acts?
When viewed in the context of a legal and spiritual framework in which love is the unambiguously highest and most supreme command, these would be contradictions. Why such contradictions are present is the subject of scholarly inquiry, with significant scholarship published on the subject. 4 different scholarly answers are written in this short work, which is just a primer on the entire field. If you consider yourself an informed seeker of answers and not an ignorant sheep of a meme-driven subculture of harmful disinformation, I encourage you to look into it further.
Do you consider yourself one who forms opinions based on evidence? Or more of a prejudice and peer pressure person?
My understanding of the Old Testament is that the nation of Israel had to be essentially kept perfect in a fallen world, by any means necessary. Hence the use of the death penalty for breaking the Law, and completely wiping out the people who they conquered in war. Any time the Israelites failed to wipe out a nation, they would end up absorbing that nation's customs and worshiping their gods, and would fall away from God.
Because of our sin and rejection of God, no one is deserving of life. Jesus' sacrifice is what redeems us to Him.
EDIT: Right after posting this comment, I came across this book. I thought I'd share it in case it is more than coincidence. There are surely countless more writings on the topic, and I highly recommend that you investigate your questions fully.
>How do you reconcile your morals with God’s morals in the OT?
I only know or care about the Old Testament because of Jesus Christ. I understand the Old Testament to have been a work of preparing the world for the coming of Christ. I consider it to have been very effective at that preparation.
I would dare propose that in the specific set of situations involving God implementing a plan through which He intends to bless the world, that "the ends justify the means."
I would also suggest that most of the hostile interpretations of God in the Old Testament are overlooking important details, like when he issues a Farrah judgment against the disgustingly and thoroughly wicked, people seem to forget the reasons and only remember the judgment. Or if He gives guidelines for if one intends to do a practice that other laws already forbid, it is taken as an endorsement of the practice. There's also the embarrassing situation where sometimes a passage is quoted that describes a wicked event that is condemned, but carefully removed from context as if it were describing the direct intent of God.
>It is very obvious that his actions are grossly immoral.
Maybe not as obvious as you think. It would be more productive if you just said that it looks obvious to you, because the assertion of fact that it's obvious, and the invitation to explain it to those who disagree, sounds like you consider yourself an expert or teacher of this subject, rather than someone with an opinion who is looking to better integrations the views of others. You may be surprised how many things you consider relevant examples of God being wicked are actually explained by the contextual errors I described above.
> The argument I hear the most is that our human minds are not capable of understanding his intentions and therefore we should not question it.
If you'd like a few more views, you might want to read this book which contains a decent explanation of four different ways confessional scholars would address the "Canaanite genocide", one of the most common examples of God looking immoral in the Old Testament. Sorry for not working